why does the kjv have extra verses

Greek Orthodox Churches. (2 Samuel 12:25) And he sent by the hand of Nathan the prophet; and he called his name Jedidiah, because of the LORD. Reason: Many (perhaps most) modern versions emulate the Revised Version and simply omit the sentence in question, without any explanatory comment. Second, this gentlemans own statistics show that the count of 100,000 could not possibly be attributable to font changes alone: if so, then there should be nearly 791,328 changes (according to this gentlemans word-count of the total words in the KJV [a number which, by the way, may include part of the Apocrypha1]). From 1611 until now, the King James Bible has undergone a grand total of 421 word changes, amounting to only five one-hundredths of a percent of the text! In most instances another verse, elsewhere in the New Testament and remaining in modern versions, is very similar to the verse that was omitted because of its doubtful provenance. It was omitted from editions of the Greek New Testament at least as far back as 1729, in Daniel Mace's edition. The differences between the NKJV and KJV Bible translations. Acts.4 [1] And as they spake unto the people, the priests, and the captain of the temple, and the Sadducees, came upon them,[2] Being grieved that they taught the people, and preached through Jesus the resurrection from the dead. The ESV, however, is quoted as having 31,103. The RSV edition of 1947 ends its main text at verse 8 and then in a footnote provides this ending with the note that "other texts and versions" include it; but the revised RSV of 1971 and the NRSV reverted to the practice of the RV. The absence of these words from the earliest resources, and the several variations in the resources in which they appear, made their exclusion probable but not a certainty (the UBS assigned the omission a confidence rating of only D). Target Audience. [3] And they laid hands on them, and put them in hold unto the next day: for it was now eventide. I was reading the KJV and it has this for 2 Kings 10:27: "And she said unto her mistress, Would God my lord were with the prophet that is in Samaria! By clicking Accept all cookies, you agree Stack Exchange can store cookies on your device and disclose information in accordance with our Cookie Policy. RV: (omits the words Get thee behind me, Satan:). However, as the years past, the KJV (also known as the Authorized Version) was in serious need of an update. It is not found in any manuscript before the 5th century. "[120] Alfred Plummer puts it very strongly, "The twelve verses not only do not belong to Mark, they quite clearly belong to some other document. In Genesis 22:7 AND WOOD was changed to AND THE WOOD. It only takes a minute to sign up. why does the kjv have extra verses. The first occurrence (as part of verse 20) is very well supported by ancient resources, including p46, , A,B,C,P,, and several ancient versions (although some omit 'Christ' and some omit 'Amen'); its inclusion in verse 20 got a UBS confidence rating of B. Changes in TYPE FACE are the changes that Wallace et al are referring to. Did Protestants get "Thine is the Kingdom etc" from the Didache? He had details and, though I would say that the tone of his letter was certainly less than charitable, I thought that the content needed some investigation. How foolish of me. The following text, 2 Samuel 12:20-31, is part of a leaf from the 1611 printing of the KJV. It only takes a minute to sign up. Is a PhD visitor considered as a visiting scholar? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Daniel_Bomberg So that'd indicate that the Vulgate chapter divisions has the original ones that Langton or his Paris School Of Savants, came up with. An additional complication is that no such ", Textus Receptus editions differ among themselves for the inclusion of the. It is NIV (not NLV); and all modern Bible versions contain those differences with the KJV. Even the King James Version had doubts about this verse, as it provided (in the original 1611 edition and still in many high-quality editions) a sidenote that said, "This 36th verse is wanting in most of the Greek copies." There are a total of 362 words in these verses. What is not admitted by KJV-only folks is that the changes in most modern translations from the KJV (though on a verbal level are certainly greater than these) do not affect the essentials of the faith. Reason: This verse is very similar to Mark 12:40 and Luke 20:47. [109] It is also reported to appear similarly (first Shorter, then Longer Ending) in some ancient versions. It does not appear at all in , A,B,E,L,P,, and other mss, some Italic, Syriac, Coptic, Slavonic, the best mss of the Latin Vulgate, and other versions, and quotations of this paragraph in Chrysostom. The reason is that the modern versions are made from more reliable manuscripts than the KJV, which was made from 10th century codex. [48] Because of its absence from the oldest sources and the confusion about its appearance in several of the sources containing it, its omission after verse 23 got a UBS confidence rating of B.[49]. My Blog why does the kjv have extra verses. Of recent times we have had many versions produced (No.46 English versions according to www.biblegateway.com that allow for certain doctrines, languages and colloquialisms. In response to curiousdanni's comment bringing up about masoretic jewish divisions of the text.. Archibald T. Robertson, Apparently the first English version that set forth this shorter ending is. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top, Not the answer you're looking for? Amen. So Arias Montanus's antwerp bible is irrelevant as he was later at 1571. Newer Protestant translations make use of a scholarly critical text of the New Testament. It was not included in the earliest English versions it is missing from Wycliffe, Tyndale, the Great Bible, the Geneva, the Rheims, and the Bishops Bible, and it apparently first appeared in the KJV. "[11] A movement called King James Version Only (KJVO), which believes that only the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible (1611) in English is the true word of God, has sharply criticized these translations for the omitted verses. Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27? "[52] The UBS gives this omission a confidence rating of A. It is likewise wanting in the Complutensian edition; but it was inserted by Erasmus [translating it from the Latin Vulgate], and upon his authority it has been adopted by the other editors of the Greek TestamentThis passage then, which later editors have copied from Erasmus, and which is contained in our common editions, is not only spurious, but was not even taken from a Greek manuscript. Verse 4 ("For an angel ") appears but without the concluding words of verse 3 ('waiting for the stirring of the water ") in A (where it says the angel "bathed in the water" rather than "descended into the water"), L, 18 (fourteenth century), and an Egyptian manuscript. They are lacking in the "earliest and best witnesses", and several ancient Greek mss that do contain them enclose them with markings indicating doubts about their authenticity, the passage contains words or expressions that appear nowhere else in John (such as the Greek words for "at a certain season [= occasionally]" and "stirring" and "diseases"), and the mss that contain this verse differ among themselves as to the wording. Reason: The passage in question is omitted from virtually all modern versions (including both Majority Text editions), frequently without even a footnote. [136] Scrivener lists more than 50 minuscules that lack the pericope, and several more in which the original scribe omitted it but a later hand inserted it. The only way one might be able to go further back is if we had the bible of Rabbi Solomon ben Ismael, mentioned earlier in this answer. (Therefore the source of the WLC is the BHS). disney reservation center. Using the Advanced Bible Search, you can restrict your Bible search to only certain books of the Bible or to just the New Testament or Old Testament. This is a great space to write long text about your company and your services. An abbreviated history of the passage is that the conclusion of the Epistle to the Romans was known in several different versions: About the year 144, Marcion made radical changes in the ending of the Epistle to the Romans, breaking it off with chapter 14. On the other hand, the doxology never made its way into the text of the Latin Bible, which was the basis of Western-rite (Roman Catholic) liturgy. Most translations follow KJV (based on Textus Receptus) versification and have Romans 16:2527 and Romans 14:2426 do not exist. ", Several other sources, such as Codex D (Codex Bezae) and some Italic mss, extend the verse with the ending, "and Judas traveled alone"; and a couple of Italic and Latin mss add to that, "to Jerusalem. And we know it's the original one. I have now spent five years studying Gods Word and am more inquisitive than ever before. Entirely omitted words: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks. "[71] Aland lays stress on the differences among the Gospel accounts and says, "Even though reads the insertion, the evidence for omission is stronger by far."[72][73]. And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. already by Shaks. (It is in fact for the reason of accessibility that the Bible must be translated afresh every fifty years or so.). Now lets do the math By omitting changes of this nature, we now have about 150 (to be conservative) remaining changes. Since we have so many manuscripts of the New Testament, we have lots of evidence to work with as we discern the original form of the writings. The original Hebrew is the word re'em which was translated monokeros in the Septuagint and unicornis in the Latin Vulgate. The KJV tells the reader to keep saying the Word, it "Shall not depart) whereas the NLT infers that the Word can simply be studied, read and does not imply to read it out loud. "[51] F.H.A. This title occupies one whole line (the book is written in double columns) and then follow the last twelve verses [i.e., the Longer Ending] still in the same hand. KJV: (For of necessity he must release one unto them at the feast. But if one is seeking clarity and accuracy, a modern translation is much preferred. Answer. For example, John 5:4 is included in the KJV, but in the NKJV the verse . You can use this space to go into a little more detail about your company. and Codex Athous Laurae ("") (8th or 9th century); in the first three it is preceded with a copyist's note about being found in only some manuscripts, in it follows verse 8 without such a note, and in all four the Shorter Ending is followed by the Longer Ending. It gets better. 5. In 1 Samuel 3:17 Elijah says to Samuel, who has just heard from the Lord in a dream; And he said, What is the thing that the LORD hath said unto thee? Meditate on it day and night so you will be sure to obey everything written in it. Moreover, in the various manuscripts in which the passage appears, it presents a much greater number of variations[133] than an equal portion of the New Testament so much so, that it would seem that there are three distinct versions of the pericope. The NIV translators simply made a different call from those who translated the KJV. Though there are hundreds of versions and translations of the Bible, the KJV is the most popular. How can we proceed with this comparison? Because English grammar and spellings had changed, in 1762 a Cambridge printer, Joseph Bentham, made many revisions. "[70] The verse in Luke does differ from the contexts of the similar verses at Matthew 27:15 and Mark 15:6, where releasing a prisoner on Passover is a "habit" or "custom" of Pilate, and at John 18:39 is a custom of the Jews but in its appearance in Luke it becomes a necessity for Pilate regardless of his habits or preferences, "to comply with a law which never existed. Using the UBS edition in the footnote to verse 14. Even if you feel overwhelmed by your sins, God is not. [21] The UBS text gave the omission of this verse a confidence rating of A. Metzger suggests that the TR text is the result of copyists' assimilation to the verb form in 13:1 ("I saw a beast"). The change of towards to toward that occurs fourteen times is thus counted as one change. As for the BHS https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblia_Hebraica_Stuttgartensia "The Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, abbreviated as BHS or rarely BH4, is an edition of the Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible as preserved in the Leningrad Codex, and supplemented by masoretic and text-critical notes. In particular, Rev 22:19 in the KJV reads: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book. Instead of the book of life the Greek text says the tree of life. No Greek MSS have book of life in this verse. He does not mention punctuation changes as valid. To begin with, I did not personally count 100,000 changes between the 1611 KJV and the modern reprints. It only takes a minute to sign up. In Romans 6:12 REIGN THEREFORE was changed to THEREFORE REIGN. A belief apparently not shared by anyone else: "No one maintains that this rather florid passage belongs to the original Mark not ever to the original form of the long ending of the Textus Receptus." Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers. Here is how Wallace et al attempt to justify their deception You see, the King James Bible you buy off the shelf today is printed in the ROMAN TYPE FACE! ". [118] The Freer Logion consists of 89 words,[119] of which 8 words do not appear elsewhere in Mark. It does not appear here in the majority of important codices, such as ,B,C,D,L,W,,, and Latin, Sahidic, and some Syriac and Boharic manuscripts. The phrase "wrote on the ground" does not require that Jesus wrote, Several late manuscripts namely U, , 73, 331, 364, 700, 782, 1592 and some Armenian mss end this sentence "the sins of each of them." See Introduction to the Holman Christian Standard Bible 2005 Removed from 2009 edition They were retained because of their 'undeniable antiquity and their value for tradition and the history of NT interpretation in the church. Another handful of minuscules 13 put it after Luke 21:38. To be sure, many of these are fairly significant. As Conybeare described it:[98] "Now in this codex the Gospel of Mark is copied out as far as [i.e., the end of 16:8]. [the Revised Version has a marginal note: Many modern versions omit these words without a note.]. ta petro employee handbook. Even now, more than four centuries after its publication, the King James Bible (a.k.a. Why do academics stay as adjuncts for years rather than move around? I will update the question again accordingly to take this into account, as we now have a source for the KJV's chapter divisions. Thus verse 15 does not exist in the KJV. These familiar words are not in , B,L,Z, several cursives, Sahidic, and some Boharic and Ethiopic mss, but appear in slightly more recent mss such as C,D,W,, and Latin mss. I have found the relationship to be the following https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leningrad_Codex "The Westminster Leningrad Codex is an online digital version of the Leningrad Codex.transcribed from BHS". Luther was concerned that the Catholic Church's emphasis on rituals, pageantry, and extra-Biblical traditions were obscuring the truth of God's word, and that studying the Bible . Christianity Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for committed Christians, experts in Christianity and those interested in learning more. This is an exact figure. If you confess what you've done wrong and ask God, He can help you change your ways. If anyone asked me what WLC meant, I'd probably refer them on to William Lane Craig. The verses in . Furthermore, it is willfully deceptive, as I shall now demonstrate. The last words of verse 8 are, in Greek, , usually translated "for they were afraid". Just another site. Amen.". 2 (Introduction) pages 299300. That includes the King James Version from which their version was adapted in the first place! ), Codex Regius ("L") (8th cent.) Browse other questions tagged, Like any library, Christianity Stack Exchange offers great information, but, Start here for a quick overview of the site, Detailed answers to any questions you might have, Discuss the workings and policies of this site. What follows, which is met with seldom, [and only] in some copies, certainly not in all, might be dispensed with; especially if it should prove to contradict the record of the other Evangelists. (Note: not only is verse 4 omitted, but also the tail end of verse 3.). To be sure, this is hardly a scientific sampling; but at the same time since the two statistical models are so widely divergent from one another, we might expect to see either pattern emerge. The above are just a few verses that illustrate how, by simply editing a few words the whole inference and power of the verse is diminished. Here is a whole series of lecture on Bible translations by Dan Wallace, that answers this. This might be in the masculine or the neuter gender - the word forms are the same. All rights reserved. Hath no man condemned thee? 4. TOWARDS has been changed to TOWARD 14 times. why does the kjv have extra verses . "8 And again, he stooped down, and wrote on the ground. Acts 24:7. Why is there a voltage on my HDMI and coaxial cables? "[86], The preceding portion of chapter 16 tells how Mary Magdalene and two other women came to the tomb, found it opened and Jesus's body missing, and were told by a young man in a white robe to convey a message to Peter and the other disciples, but the women fled and said nothing to anyone because they were frightened. (recent revisions), sfn error: no target: CITEREFMetzger1964 (. Later Councils at Hippo (393 AD) and Carthage (397 AD) ratified this list of 73 books. A commonly accepted theory for the condition of the last chapter of the Gospel of Mark is that the words actually written by St. Mark end, somewhat abruptly, with verse 8. It would seem possible that, originally, 7:52 was immediately followed by 8:12, and somehow this pericope was inserted between them, interrupting the narrative.[135]. peter macari age. Cyril (born about A.D. 315) - "Read the divine Scriptures - namely, the 22 books of the Old Testament which the 72 interpreters translated" (the Septuagint) The Shorter Ending does not contradict this, but the Longer Ending, in verse 9, immediately contradicts this by having Jesus appear to Mary Magdalene while in Jerusalem, and in verse 12 to two disciples apparently not yet in Galilee. Well, it is. ( Psalm 40:5 ) Does "And Your thoughts toward us;" mean that God is Specifically thinking about us? (2 Samuel 12:22) And he said, While the child was yet alive, I fasted and wept: for I said, Who can tell whether GOD will be gracious to me, that the child may live? Try and find these scriptures in NIV or ESV on your computer, phone or device right now if you are in doubt: Matthew 17:21, 18:11, 23:14; Mark 7:16, 9:44, 9:46; Luke 17:36, 23:17; John 5:4; Acts 8:37. [13] According to Bruce Metzger, "There can be little doubt that the words are spurious here, being omitted by the earliest witnesses representing several textual types [This verse was] manifestly borrowed by copyists from Luke 19:10."[14]. These apocryphal books were positioned between the Old and New Testament (it also contained maps and geneologies). Westcott and Hort summarized the evidence as follows: However, one minuscule (ms. 225) placed the pericope after John 7:36. Can airtags be tracked from an iMac desktop, with no iPhone? To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers. About an argument in Famine, Affluence and Morality. More insights from your Bible study - Get Started with Logos Bible Software for Free! (All in bold type omitted in modern versions). [74] The 18th century Bible scholar, Johann David Michaelis, wrote (c.1749), "[This] long passage has been found in not a single Greek manuscript, not even in those which have been lately [ca. Verses 44 and 46 are both lacking in ,B,C,L,W,1, and some mss of the ancient versions, but appear in somewhat later sources such as A,D,K,, some Italic mss and the Vulgate. Now, someone might object: But thats a printers error; that shouldnt count. There are two problems with this. If there have been only 421 changes from 1611 until today, how can Wallace et al say that there have been 100,000 changes? Actually, Greek codex W (also known as the Freer Gospels or the Codex Washingtonianus), dating from the fourth or fifth century, is the oldest known Greek ms that sets forth the Longer Ending[95] and it contains a lengthy addition (which appears nowhere else), known as the Freer Logion, between the familiar verses 14 and 15. The UBS gives the omission of the doubted phrases a confidence rating of only C, and Westcott and Hort "thought it safer" to have the words in the main text but enclosed in single brackets. King James Onlyists frequently argue that the KJV is superior because it is based on the Textus Receptus tradition, and Douay-Rheims Onlyists often argue for the Douay's superiority from the fact . (There are 155,683 words in the Apocrypha, the group of books that was almost always . Reason: The verse closely resembles Mark 9:29, but it is lacking in Matthew in (original handwriting), B, , some Italic & Syriac & Coptic & Ethiopic manuscripts. "It's not meant to replace your current version of . The verse as it appears in the KJV is found in less ancient Greek mss (cursives, after the 9th century) and some other Italic, Syriac, Coptic, Armenian, Ethiopic, and other versions. Westcott and Hort omitted it and did not even mention it in their Appendix volume, nor is it mentioned in Scrivener's Plain Introduction to Criticism of the New Testament, nor is it mentioned in Metzger's Commentary, nor does it get even a footnote in the Souter[66][failed verification] or UBS Greek New Testament. [citation needed], KJV: 55"But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of.56For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them. This, then, is what a person will say who is for evading and entirely getting rid of a gratuitous problem." [39] As Scrivener said, "We cannot safely question the spuriousness of this verse, which all the critical editors condemn. How do I align things in the following tabular environment? The King James Version (KJV) of The Bible was published in 1611 and was based upon analysing multiple previous copies of Bibles and manuscripts available at the time. Why is Matthew 6:13 different in the NIV that some other translations? It does not occur after verse 23 in p46 & 61, , A,B,C, several minuscules and some other sources; it does appear in D,G,, minuscule 629 (although G,, and 629and both leading compilations of the so-called Majority Textend the Epistle with this verse and do not follow it with verses 2527) and several later minuscules; P and some minuscules do not have it as verse 24 but move it to the very end of the Epistle, after verse 27. The oldest and most reliable manuscripts lack the extra verses that are found in the KJV. "[22] Without the words at issue the context simply states that a swimming or bathing pool in or near Jerusalem was a gathering place for sick and crippled people, some of whom sought to get into the pool (either for physical comfort or for ritual cleansing) and it was there that Jesus performed miraculous healing. Reasons: The earliest resources including p47, , A,C, several minuscules, several Italic mss, the Vulgate, the Armenian and Ethiopic versions, and quotation in some early Church Fathers support "he stood" (or "it stood"). But Erasmus added the article for each member of the Trinity, creating yet three more variants without any Greek MS support. Another well-known error is found in Jesus discourse against the religious leaders of his day, recorded in Matthew 23. @curiousdannii I said WLC(aka WTT) (aka stands for also known as), so when I wrote a.k.a., i'm saying they're the same thing. What is a word for the arcane equivalent of a monastery? Myth 1: The Hebrew Bible does not contain the deuterocanonical books. The KJV states that God has not withheld the request of his lips, the NLT infers that his request could simply be a thought. But quots. Author. First, errors creep into copies of a book, especially one that is nearly a million words long! "[114], The preceding verse, verse 16:8. ends abruptly. "for thine is the kingdom" in the KJV but not the NIV. It is apologetically significant in dealing with two groups: anti-Catholics who deny the existence of vernacular translations before the King James Version (KJV) and certain Catholic Traditionalists who insist on using only the Douay.

Dead Rising 2: Off The Record Secret Survivors, Who Is Jojofromjerz, Junior Deacon Duties Opening Lodge, Abandoned Homes On Green St In Ogdensburg, Ny, Articles W

why does the kjv have extra verses